Quick quiz Question 1 of 5

A 72-year-old man is admitted with fever, severe bilateral pneumonia, and sepsis. His exam does not suggest volume overload. During his first hospitalization day, his ECG shows transient deep ST depression in the lateral leads. His troponin I peaks at 1.2 ng/ml, with a rise and fall pattern; BNP = 65. He has acute renal failure with creatinine of 1.7 mg/dl. He does not complain of chest pain. His echo shows a hyperdynamic LV. What is the next step?

His troponin rise is due to ischemic imbalance. He does not fulfill the definition of MI. No need for further cardiac workup His troponin is partly due to ischemic imbalance. He fulfills the definition of MI. Perform stress testing before discharge His troponin is partly due to ischemic imbalance. He fulfills the definition of MI. Perform coronary angiography after stabilization of infectious state and renal function None of the above